I wonder if anyone has advice to offer here:

Given that a Parish Council represents all members of the Parish.  If
land is left to the parishoners under the management of the Parish
Council who does the actual freehold belong to?  Is the Parish Council
an actual legal entity acting undr the madate given through the
elections or is it acting on behalf of the parishoners in whom the
freehold is vested?

I ask the question in relation to the situation where as freeholders
(or representing the freeholders!) of a piece of land are to be served
notice for a planning application by a tennant on their land.
Presumably the notice should be served on on the Parish Council.
Should the Parish Council then consult with the parishoners to seek
their comments on the application before responding? or are the Parish
Council free to assume authority to respond without recourse to the
parishoners or are they required to consult and represent the views of
the parish as a whole?